If native Americans have the title deeds to America, morally speaking, on account of being the "original inhabitants," why don't the Jews by the same token have the title deeds to their territory, on account of being its original inhabitants?
If native Americans have the title deeds to America, morally speaking, on account of being the "original inhabitants," why don't the Jews by the same token have the title deeds to their territory, on account of being its original inhabitants?